Are There Any Official Titles For The Lord's Church?

No. Each designation in the New Testament concerning the relationship Jesus has with His church are descriptions and not official titles.

The Bible uses many descriptive terms for the church such as: (1) the church - people who are "called out" of darkness into the marvelous light via obeying the gospel (Matthew 16:18; 1 Peter 2:9,10; 2 Thessalonians 2:14), (2) the temple of God - people who obey the gospel and are added as spiritual stones to the spiritual building - Jesus (Ephesians 2:19-22; 1 Peter 2:4-8), (3) the body of Christ - people who are purchased by the blood of Jesus and are added as members to the spiritual body (Ephesians 1:7,22,23; Acts 20:28), (4) the vine - people who become disciples and are attached to the true vine - Jesus (John 15:1-9); (5) the citizens of the kingdom of God - people who obey Jesus as King (Matthew 16:18; 28:18; Colossians 1:13); etc.

We also understand that the New Testament teaches that people who become Christians are to gather with other Christians in a certain locality in order to stir up love and good works by assembling together to worship Him (Hebrews 10:25; Acts 20:7; 1 Corinthians 11:17-34). A historical example of this: the Christians in the Roman province of Galatia gathered together in certain areas to meet together (Galatians 1:1,2).

The New Testament never uses an official designation. It always uses descriptions, such as:

1. Acts 20:28 - "church of God" - shows that Jesus is Divine and is Owner of the group of people He has called out through His precious blood ("God" here refers to God the Son)
2. . 1 Corinthians 1:2 - "church of God" - shows ownership or possession that Jesus (God) owns
3. 1 Corinthians 11:16 - "churches of God" - local congregations that make up the one universal body whose Head is Jesus who is Divine
4. 1 Corinthians 14:33 - "churches of the saints" - local congregations composed of those who have been sanctified by the blood of Jesus through washing (1 Corinthians 6:19-21)
5. 1 Corinthians 16:1,2 - "churches of Galatia" - local congregations located in the geographical vicinity of Galatia
6. 1 Corinthians 16:19 - "churches of Asia" - local congregations located in the geographical vicinity of Asia
7. 1 Thessalonians 1:1 - "churches of the Thessalonians" - Christians related to the local congregations found in the geographical vicinity of Thessalonica
8. Romans 16:4 - "churches of the Gentiles" - local congregations primarily made up of Gentiles
9. Romans 16:16 - "churches of Christ" - local congregations related to Jesus the Messiah (Christ) who was foretold in the Old Testament

Without doubt, there is only one true church, which is the church Jesus established (Matthew 16:18-19; Ephesians 1:22-23; 4:4; etc.). Jesus chose many descriptions to describe His church; but He never intended for these descriptions to turn into titles or different denominations (Romans 16:17-18; 1 Corinthians 1:10). Nor does He want His church to wear His name, yet teach another gospel or worship another way than His way (Matthew 15:8-9; Galatians 1:6-9).

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Is Galatians 3:26-28 Proof That Woman May Serve In Spiritual Positions of Authority Over Men?

Galatians 3:26-28 has been misused and abused by feminists and brethren who are seeking to restructure the church of Jesus Christ. It has been ripped out of its present context to supposedly prove that women may serve in the same spiritual positions over men such as preaching, scripture reading, presiding over the Lord's Supper, leading the prayer, and leading singing.

Paul is combating the Judaizing teachers on the issue of whether Gentile Christians must keep the Law of Moses in a legal sense along with circumcision in order to be in fellowship with God. Paul states that it is the faith system (the gospel) of Jesus Christ that is the key in having fellowship with God. It is through water immersion (that point at which one accesses Jesus' blood, Revelation 1:5; Acts 22:16) that a sinner is united with Christ and the result is that as we are immersed, then we will have "put on Christ" as we do with a new set of clothes. Paul then mentions three groups that have the same access to this great salvation: (1) Jews/Greeks, (2) males/females, and (3) slaves/freedmen.

Males and females are equal in value and worth (Genesis 1:26,27), equally loved by God (John 3:16), and have the same opportunity of access to the salvation that is found only in Christ Jesus (2 Timothy 2:10). But males and females have been given distinctive roles (1 Corinthians 11:2-16; 14:34,35; 1 Timothy 2:8-15) that were designed by God to be fulfilled since the beginning of creation. These roles do not at all imply any superiority or inferiority. Men have been given the spiritual role of leadership in the home and the spiritual realm while women are to be in submission to their leadership in the home and the spiritual realm.

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Are We Obligated To Obey The Principles of The Old Testament?

Yes [with clarification below].

A principle is an "an adopted rule or method for application in action" according to www.dictionary.com . There are several verses that we can appeal to that show that we are to still follow the adopted rules or methods for application in action from the Old Testament, but not the specific details themselves [Please see our Q&A: "Are We Obligated To Obey The Specific Details of The Old Testament?"]:

1. 2 Timothy 3:16, 17 - These verses teach that all Scripture [which is primarily speaking of the Old Testament] is all-sufficient for every good work.
2. Romans 15:4 - We are to learn from the Old Testament for our patience and comfort so that we might have hope.
3. 1 Corinthians 10:1-11 - We are to learn from the nation of Israel who walked through the wilderness to not allow fornication, idolatry, grumbling, or complaining be a part of our walk of life as a Christian.
4. Jude 5 - We are to learn from the examples of disobedience and rebellion in the Old Testament such as the nation of Israel in the wilderness, the fallen angels, and Sodom and Gomorrah.
5. Jude 11 - We are to learn not to go in the way of Cain in religion, be greedy and covetous like Balaam, or be like the rebellion of Korah.
6. Romans 4:20,21 - We are to display a likeness of the faith of Abraham in our walk as a Christian.
7. Hebrews 11 - We are to imitate the examples of faith in the "Faith Hall of Fame" here.
8. Leviticus 10:1,2 - We are to not offer unto God that which He did not command as Nadab and Abihu did.
9. 1 Samuel 15 - We are to show complete and full obedience, not partial obedience as Saul did.
10. Matthew 19:4-6 - We are to honor the principle of God-joined marriages as set out in Genesis 2:24 (not homosexual "marriage" or polygamous "marriages", etc.
11. 1 Corinthians 14:34; 1 Timothy 2:11-14 - We are to honor the principle of the God-given roles of male and female as set out in Genesis 2:18, 22; 3:16.
12. 1 Timothy 2:9-10 - We are to honor the principle of God's modesty standard as set out by God in the garden in Genesis 3:21 (in contrast to man's subjective and inadequate standards, Genesis 3:7) as we seek God's definition of true modesty and modest clothing.
13. Matthew 19:9; 1 Corinthians 5:1; 6:18; Jude 1:7 - We are to honor the principle of abstaining from fornication (translated in the New King James as "sexual immorality") as vividly defined by God in Leviticus 18:6-23.

There are many more verses in the Old Testament that contain principles, but these are sufficient in answering an affirmative to this question.

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What Is The Gift Of The Holy Spirit In Acts 2:38?

The "Miraculous" Meaning: The gift of the Holy Spirit is a miraculous endowment that was given to the early church to mature it (Ephesians 4:7-16) until such a time when the complete revelation of God was given in written form (2 Peter 1:3) and would it would then cease sometime in the first century A.D. (1 Corinthians 13:8-13). First, this meaning respects the consistency of language that is used. Luke defines the same phrase "the gift of the Holy Spirit" in Acts 10:45-46 to indicate that it is the miraculous endowments given by the Holy Spirit in the first century A.D. Second, this view respects the remote historical context where Peter discusses the gift of the Holy Spirit. When the Jews in the audience saw the miraculous phenomenon taking place where the apostles were preaching in languages that they had never studied before, Peter states that these events were being fulfilled as Joel had prophesied in Joel 2:28-32. Read Joel 2:28-32 and it indicates that there would be young men, old men, women, slaves who would receive miraculous endowments from the Holy Spirit, which we know would be given via the laying on of the apostles' hands (compare Acts 8:14-21) after they became Christians. The promise that Peter refers to in Acts 2:39 is referring back to the promise of Joel. Notice that these miraculous endowments would be given to "you" - Jews who became Christians, "your children" - the Jewish children, and the Gentiles - "those who are afar off" who became Christians. Also notice the phrase "will call" is not referring to the gospel call (2 Thessalonians 2:14), but referring to a call to a special office. The original language is in the subjunctive mood, which is a mode of possibility. It ought to be translated, "may call." There is a possibility that some of these people who became Christians would be called to these special offices such as prophets (Acts 13:2). Every verse in Acts 2 (unless Acts 2:38 is the lone exception) associated with the Holy Spirit depicts miraculous activity (Acts 2:4, 11, 17-18, 33, 38, 43). Joel's prophecy, which Peter quoted, spoke only of the miraculous (Acts 2:17-18). Third, this meaning respects the wider context of the book of Acts. Luke mentions in Acts that where there is a "giving" and "receiving" of the Holy Spirit, it is always in relation to miraculous activity (Acts 8:14-18; Acts 19:1-7).

The "Non-miraculous" Meaning: God did not give the Holy Spirit to Christ by measure (because Jesus had all the fullness of the Spirit, John 3:34). However, God did reveal 3 measures He gave to His people, two of which were limited to the miraculous age of the first century A.D., namely (1) The miraculous measure through "Holy Spirit baptism" (with record of only the Jewish apostles and the Gentiles, Cornelius and his household, receiving, Acts 1:5, 8; 2:1-3, 43; 10:44-48; 11:15-18); (2) the miraculous measure through the "laying on of the apostles' hands" (Acts 8:14-21; 6:6; 19:6; 28:8; 2 Timothy 1:6); and (3) the non-miraculous or "ordinary" measure through obeying the gospel/repenting and being baptized for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:32; Romans 8:9; John 3:5; Titus 3:5). The word "of" can refer to the object of the subject (example: the gift of making alive, which comes FROM the Holy Spirit) or the subject itself (example: the gift which IS the Holy Spirit; compare "the city of Jerusalem). In Acts 2:38, this "gift" was to be received by all who obeyed the gospel and was not to be limited to the apostles or just to Cornelius and his household (thus eliminating the idea of the first two measures mentioned). Acts 5:32 is a great commentary to Acts 2:38, letting us know that all who obey the gospel receive God's Spirit (thus letting us know how "the gift of the Holy Spirit" in Acts 2:38 is being used, that is, the gift which IS the Holy Spirit). Furthermore, this was not to be limited to the first century A.D. because it was not a miraculous measure (miracles were only being done through the apostles until Acts 6:8) and it is consistent with the statement in Romans 8:9, "But you are not in the flesh but in the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. Now if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, he is not His."

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What Is The Sprinkling of 1 Peter 1:2?

Many denominations twist 1 Peter 1:2 to advocate that another mode of "baptism" is sprinkling - but that is not what this verse means. The sprinkling of the blood in the Old Testament was an essential component in the sacrificial system of the Law of Moses in Leviticus. Peter's audience were Jewish Christians who would have understood the background of this concept significantly (1 Peter 1:1).

While the blood of animals was the means by which the nation of Israel received atonement under the old covenant, no matter how much blood was sprinkled, "it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins" (Hebrews 10:4). There must have been a better way. It is the cleansing blood of Jesus that can wash away the sinner's sins (Hebrews 9:13,14; 1 Corinthians 6:9-11; Romans 6:3,4). The blood of Jesus will completely "cleanse your conscience".

According to 1 Peter 1:2, the blood of Jesus is applied to us figuratively in the same manner the blood was applied literally under the old covenant-by sprinkling.

In Hebrews 10:19-22, it is by the blood of Jesus that we have access directly into the presence of God by a new and living way (Hebrews 10:19-20). As the old covenant required a high priest for a person to have access to God, the new covenant has Jesus as the Christian's high priest. As a Christian we can draw near to God through faith, "having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience and our bodies washed with pure water." So, in this passage, faith is turning from an evil conscience and being "washed with water" [perfect tense - having completed this action in the past that now has abiding results] with pure water, compare Ephesians 5:26; Titus 3:5). When we are immersed, we "appeal to God for a good conscience" (1 Peter 3:21), and God cleanses (that is, sprinkles) us with the blood of His Son (Acts 22:16).

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What Is The Tongues Gift Mentioned In 1 Corinthians 12:4-11?

1 Corinthians 12:4-11 states: "There are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit. There are differences of ministries, but the same Lord. And there are diversities of activities, but it is the same God who works all in all. But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to each one for the profit of all: for to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, to another the word of knowledge through the same Spirit, to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healings by the same Spirit, to another the working of miracles, to another prophecy, to another discerning of spirits, to another different kinds of tongues, to another the interpretation of tongues. But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually as He wills."

This miraculous gift was used by an apostle (2 Corinthians 12:12). In Acts 2:1-4, Peter and the rest of the apostles were able to speak by the Holy Spirit the native languages of those distinctive groups of people who had come to visit on the Day of Pentecost (Acts 2:5-11). In that historical time period, Koine Greek was the common language of the time because of its cultural impact from the past efforts of Alexander the Great to "hellenize" (spread the Greek culture) across the known world. These people were in amazement when they witnessed Galileans whose area (Galilee) of the world was not known for being an area of educational elitism like Athens had been.

The ability to speak in tongues was also imparted to other 1st century Christians by the laying on of the apostles' hands (Acts 8:14-18; 19:1-7; 2 Timothy 1:6) to help the infant church mature in the faith (Ephesians 4:7-16) since it did not have as yet the fully revealed, written New Testament disseminated among all the congregations (as we have it today).

1 Corinthians 14:22-25 states: "Therefore tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe. Therefore if the whole church comes together in one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those who are uninformed or unbelievers, will they not say that you are out of your mind? But if all prophesy, and an unbeliever or an uninformed person comes in, he is convinced by all, he is convicted by all. And thus the secrets of his heart are revealed; and so, falling down on his face, he will worship God and report that God is truly among you."

Paul states that these tongues (different human languages) are a sign for those who were not Christians in the first century A.D. The honest, non-Christians would view this miraculous gift as a sign pointing to something supernatural - the God of the Bible (the very idea that uneducated Christians could speak fluently in their native language). This is exactly what occurred on the Day of Pentecost when unbelievers in the Messiah witnessed the sign of their native tongues being spoken by Galilean men. Such obvious, miraculous ability confirmed that the apostles' message of the gospel was from God.

Today, we no longer have the miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit available (other than what is recorded in the written New Testament). Miracles were given in the early church for the purpose of confirming the word of God (Mark 16:17-20). We have the fully confirmed and revealed written word of God that is sufficient for us today (2 Peter 1:3; Jude 1:3). If we are going to spread the gospel in other foreign countries, then we must study the native language in order to effectively communicate to the people.

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How Do We Defeat The Devil?

The Bible clearly teaches that Satan is a serious adversary who desires to devour our soul (1 Peter 5:8,9). While the devil is a fearful foe, the good news is we can and must defeat him. Here are three ways to defeat Satan:

Resist the devil. "Resist him, steadfast in the faith, knowing that the same sufferings are experienced by your brotherhood in the world" (1 Peter 5:9). The word for "resist" (antistemi) comes from two Greek words. "Anti" means "against". "Stemi" means "to stand". Literally, it means "to stand against." The encouragement Peter gives to Christians is that they can "stand against" the adversary. Although the devil is a fearful foe, you can stand on the opposing side against him!

Realize his tactics. The devil has many tricks to use against the Christian. Satan is characterized as a wily and conniving creature (1 Timothy 3:7, Ephesians 6:10-11). Satan has a large arsenal of weapons including worldliness, lust, defeat, and even self. But, if we will study the nature and tactics of Satan, then we can know ahead of time what he is going to use against us. We can be prepared by not allowing those to penetrate into our hearts. Realizing his wily tricks will help us defeat him.

Read, study, and meditate on the Bible. When Satan tried to tempt Jesus, our Savior used three powerful words to overcame Satan; hree times Jesus stated, "It is written" (Matthew 4). Jesus was so well versed in the Bible that it was His primary defense against the devil - and it worked. Today, if we are going to overcome Satan, we must know the Word of God. The Psalmist said, "Your word I have hidden in my heart that I might not sin against You" (Psalm 119:9-11).

God has given us the ability to defeat Satan. We have to arm ourselves for battle and vehemently fight the foe every day. May God help us to truly overcome the enemy (Revelation 2:10).

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Should Christmas Be Celebrated As A Religious Holiday By The Church?

There were three feasts the Jewish males were required by God to observe annually and religiously in remembrance of significant events in their history (Exodus 23:14-19). When Jesus died on the cross, He wiped out the Old Testament handwriting of ordinances, including the requirement of these feasts (Colossians 2:11-17). In fact, under the New Testament if anyone observed these annual events (called "years") as religious holy days, they were rebuked (Galatians 4:9-11).

Since holy days and years once authorized by God were later condemned by God, what of "holy", religious celebrations made up by men?

The only day Jesus authorizes all Christians to observe religiously is the first day of the week (Sunday, weekly observance, Acts 20:7; 1 Corinthians 16:1-2). On this day Christians assemble and partake of the Lord's Supper, proclaiming the Lord's death till He comes (1 Corinthians 11:23-26). The gospel, which is the power of God to save, contains and emphasizes the message of Christ's death, burial, and resurrection (not His birth, Romans 1:16; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4).

There are several reasons as to why Christians do not observe the birth of Jesus annually and religiously:

The Bible does not reveal the day, season or year Jesus was born; therefore, Christians must not think or go beyond what is written by celebrating Christ's birth on December 25 or any other day (1 Corinthians 4:6; Revelation 22:18-19).

The Bible does not authorize us to celebrate Jesus' birth religiously (Colossians 3:17).
Timothy was to remind the church of Paul's ways in Christ; yet there is no record of Paul or the first-century church celebrating the birth of Jesus (1 Corinthians 4:17; Jude 1:3).

Be warned that there is a vast difference between spending quality time with family during secular holidays our nation celebrates such as "Christmas" or "Valentine's Day" and observing Christmas as a religious holiday in which you celebrate the birth of Jesus. The former is permissible, the latter is condemned.

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Should A Christian Attend The High School Prom?

No.

Christians are to be and remain the light of this dark world (Matthew 5:14-16). It is important that Christians show that they have been sanctified (that is, set apart) from the world, including worldly activities that may lead to sexual immorality (1 Thessalonians 4:1-3). Sexual immorality is of this world (1 John 2:15-17) and is one of the biggest contributors to the unraveling and unweaving of the moral fabric of our world. It is common knowledge that one of the designs of the modern dance (including the prom) is to promote a lustful environment (including immodest clothing and lustful, bodily movements) that leads to the next step, namely, leaving the dance in order to commit sexual immorality. Proverbs 22:3 and 27:12 state: “A prudent man foresees evil and hides himself, but the simple pass on and are punished.” This proverb is applicable to us today because as Christians we are to be wise (Ephesians 5:17), “have an understanding of the times” (1 Chronicles 12:32), and be in tune with what is happening around us. A Christian should be able to foresee an evil practice and disassociate himself/herself from such a practice so that they will not fall into its intended consequences. According to 1 Thessalonians 5:22, Christians are to “Abstain from every form of evil” which includes abstaining from “fleshly lusts which war against the soul” (1 Peter 2:11) and from “sexual immorality” (1 Thessalonians 4:3).

First, there is the danger of sight that is associated with the modern dance and the prom. What a person sees with his/her eyes can produce lust in the heart which brings forth sin (James 1:14-16). Jesus teaches us to control our eyes and our hearts (Matthew 5:27,28). In Mark 6:14-29 and Matthew 14:6-8 Salome, the daughter of Herodias, danced before Herod Antipas and the text states that it pleased Herod. Does the high school prom help promote the modern dance which helps facilitate the development of youth lusting after each other as sexual objects? To ask is to answer. It is also a fact that there will be those who are dressed in immodest apparel (1 Timothy 2:9). How will a Christian, who is supposed to be sanctified for the purpose of purity (Matthew 5:8), be able to attend the prom without damaging his/her purity?

Second, there is the danger of touch that is associated with the modern dance and the prom. One of the works of the flesh is known as “lasciviousness” (Galatians 5:19-21). It means unbridled lust and sensuality. It includes exciting sexual desires by indecent bodily movements and touch. The high school prom that features the modern dance is a promoter of this “work of the flesh”. When a man and woman handle each other in indecent ways, it will cause this sin to come to the forefront.

Third, there is the danger of influence that is associated with the modern dance and the prom. Our influence will either bring glory to Jesus (and even win souls) or become a stumbling block (Matthew 18:6,7). We are to use our power of influence in living out the Christian life to the glory of God and to lead others to Christ (Matthew 5:16; 1 Corinthians 10:31; Romans 14:7). Ask yourself whether the prom/modern dance would fit the categories found in Philippians 4:8, meditating on things that are pure, true, just, noble, etc. Attending the prom is not worth risking your soul or the soul’s around you. Would you truly feel confident in your soul if Jesus were to come while you were in the middle of a lustful dance at the prom? Even if you and your “date” were modest and did not choose to dance or to view those who were dancing – this is not the type of environment of which holy Christians should be a part. Consider the fact that you may have a younger sibling or a weaker Christian who finds out you attended and therefore concludes it is safe and Christ-like to attend. Your example is very important!

May young people stand as an example that Timothy was to follow in 1 Timothy 4:12: “Let no one despise your youth, but be an example to the believers in word, in conduct, in love, in spirit, in faith, in purity.”

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Does 1 Corinthians 7:10,11 Grant Permission For Divorce?

Absolutely not!
1 Corinthians 7:10,11: “Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A wife is not to depart from her husband. But even if she does depart, let her remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband. And a husband is not to divorce his wife.”

There are many people who wrongly conclude from 1 Corinthians 7:10,11 that this text grants permission for marital couples to divorce for any reason (other than the scriptural reason – Matthew 5:31,32; 19:9) provided they do not remarry while their former partner remains living.
Please re-read 1 Corinthians 7:10,11. Take note that these are the commands of the Lord. These are not strong suggestions. Any spouse who divorces his/her spouse for a cause other than fornication is sinning against God. Why? Because you are separating what God designed and joined (Matthew 19:6). God designed marriage to help prevent aloneness (Genesis 2:18-25), prevent fornication (1 Corinthians 7:1-5), and bring two persons (male and female) into a one-flesh union, enabling the procreation of mankind (Genesis 1:22, 28). By divorcing for unscriptural reasons, sexual temptation and/or the need for companionship may become strong, leading one or both spouses to become stumbling blocks of one another (study Matthew 5:31,32, “causes her to commit adultery”).

1 Corinthians 7:10,11 plainly states that these are commands of the Lord which apply to both the wife and the husband (“a wife is not to depart from her husband…a husband is not to divorce his wife.”).

Doesn’t 1 Corinthians 7:11 imply that divorce is permissible as long as remarriage does not occur?
No. 1 Corinthians 7:10,11 instructs persons on what their scriptural options are if they sin by departing/divorcing for unscriptural reasons. If a spouse disobeys the divine instructions of 1 Corinthians 7:10 (“not to depart/divorce”), then to receive forgiveness, they must (imperative mood) remain (present tense) unmarried or be reconciled to their former spouse. This is a command. If it is impossible to be reconciled, then they must remain unmarried.

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Are Tongues Estatic Utterances As Some Denominations Claim?

No. There are several reasons why "tongues" in the New Testament were real, human languages (such as Hebrew, Aramaic, Koine Greek, Latin, etc.). The miraculous ability to speak in another language one has never studied is special because it was only given to a few Christians in the first century A.D. until the infant church of the first century came to maturity in order to confirm that the partial revelations were from God (Mark 16:20; 1 Corinthians 13; Ephesians 4:7-16).

Some denominations try to get around this idea by pointing out that it is an "angelic" or "heavenly" language that can be understood by God. Some misuse verses such as 1 Corinthians 13:1 and 14:26-28.

In 1 Corinthians 13:1, Paul is stating that the language of angels is a real, intelligible language that could be understood. When Gabriel the angel communicated with Zechariah (Luke 1:13-20) and Mary (Luke 1:26-35), did they not understand Gabriel? Of course they did!

In 1 Corinthians 14:26-28, Paul is communicating to the church at Corinth who were abusing miraculous gifts (originally designed to be used in a proper manner). In verse 28, if there was no interpreter for the foreign-language speaker, then the foreign-language speaker was to keep silent. Why? Because no one in the audience could understood what he was saying and thereby would not be edified in the faith. Paul then says, "then let him speak to himself and to God." Paul is stating that he is to talk within himself (knowing that it is from God) and only God would understand.

Luke shows evidence that these were real, human languages. There are several indicators in the text. In Acts 2:4: "And they [the apostles - SF (Acts 1:26)] were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance." Notice that the apostles already had a tongue before the Holy Spirit empowered them. They spoke Aramaic (a real human language) and most likely Koine Greek (since some of them wrote in that real human language such as Peter). This corresponds in great parallel with Mark 16:17: "they will speak with new tongues."

In Acts 2:6, the crowd to whom the apostles are speaking are confused "because everyone heard them speak in his own language." Notice that the word "language" (Greek word - dialektos [we get the English word "dialect" from this word]) is another synonym that Luke uses for the word "tongue". He uses them interchangeably throughout this context.

In Acts 2:7, then the crowd asked the question, "Look, are not all these who speak Galileans?" Why would they ask that question? Because Galilee was not particularly known as the seat of intellectualism; thus, these men would most likely not have been schooled and trained in the foreign languages they were miraculously speaking.

In Acts 2:7, the crowd states: "And how is it that we hear, each in our own language in which we were born?" Is it not the case that a person begins to learn a real human language when they come from the mother's womb? Yes.

Notice the crowd understands what the apostles were speaking - "the wonderful works of God". When denominations speak in tongues (as they define them), you cannot understand what they are saying! This crowd knew that the apostles were communicating intelligble speech, not unintelligble speech.

There is one other place that no doubt it is speaking of real human languages. In 1 Corinthians 14:21,22, Paul is quoting from the Old Testament in verse 21. It comes from Isaiah 28:11,12. In the remote context, Isaiah is dealing with the northern kingdom of Israel who were sinning against their Creator. God had used Isaiah as His mouthpiece, whom Israel could clearly understand because he spoke to them in the Hebrew language that they understood. Even though they heard the clear message in their own Hebrew language, they rejected it. God was going to judge the northern kingdom by sending them into Assyrian captivity in 722 B.C. Israel would not be hearing a understood language now, but would now hear a foreign language - the Akkadian language of the Assyrian invaders - " For with stammering lips and another tongue He will speak to this people". Akkadian was a real human language.

Tongues were real human languages, not estatic utterances as some denominations claim.

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What Does We Will Judge Angels Mean In 1 Corinthians 6:3?

In the context of 1 Corinthians 6:1-11, Paul is dealing with the issue of lawsuits between Christians. Paul writes a rhetorical question in the context that asked: “Do you not know that we shall judge angels?” The answer is an obvious and rhetorical “yes”. But what does it mean?
The Bible speaks of fallen angels in 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 1:6.
2 Peter 2:4 states: “For if God did not spare the angels who sinned, but cast them down to hell and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved for judgment;”
Jude 1:6 states: “And the angels who did not keep their proper domain, but left their own abode, He has reserved in everlasting chains under darkness for the judgment of the great day”
Both Peter and Jude are giving historical examples of those who chose to rebel against God such as Noah's contemporaries, Sodom and Gommorah, the children of Israel in the wilderness, and the fallen angels.
God created man with a purpose to rule the earth (Genesis 1:26,27). When sin came into the world (Romans 5:12), the rule of men over creation was broken and needed to be repaired. Jesus Christ, as the new Adam, came to bring restoration and repair man's proper role of ruling again (Hebrews 2:5-9). Therefore those who serve God faithfully not only reign with Christ in a sense now (Colossians 1:13), but will fully reign with Him throughout eternity (2 Timothy 2:12).
On the final day of judgment, God will judge all of mankind (Acts 17:30). Those who are “in Christ” (2 Timothy 2:10) will be vindicated (Romans 8:1) and will be ushered into the everlasting kingdom of God (2 Peter 1:11). Since Christians will be able to reign with Christ, they will, in a sense, be judging the evil spiritual powers (fallen angels) because they acted on faith in following an invisible God whom they could not see while these angels threw up their fists in defiance against a God whom they could see, but still chose to rebel.
It might be helpful to notice this point. Hebrews 11:7 states: “By faith Noah, being divinely warned of things not yet seen, moved with godly fear, prepared an ark for the saving of his household, by which he condemned the world and became heir of the righteousness which is according to faith.”
How did Noah condemn the world? He followed the will of God and by default set himself up against the world. We condemn the world (and the fallen angels too) when we seek to follow the will of God and apply it to our own lives because we know that those who rebel against God will receive eternal condemnation (Matthew 25:46).

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What Is The Miraculous Gift of Faith?

1 Corinthians 12:4-11 states: "There are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit. There are differences of ministries, but the same Lord. And there are diversities of activities, but it is the same God who works all in all. But the manifestation of the Spirit is given to each one for the profit of all: for to one is given the word of wisdom through the Spirit, to another the word of knowledge through the same Spirit, to another faith by the same Spirit, to another gifts of healings by the same Spirit, to another the working of miracles, to another prophecy, to another discerning of spirits, to another different kinds of tongues, to another the interpretation of tongues. But one and the same Spirit works all these things, distributing to each one individually as He wills."

Many Bible students are puzzled by this miraculous gift. Yet there are some clues in God's word which will help us understand what this miraculous gift was.

In Matthew 21:18-22, the Bible states: "Now in the morning, as He returned to the city, He was hungry. And seeing a fig tree by the road, He came to it and found nothing on it but leaves, and said to it, ‘Let no fruit grow on you ever again.' Immediately the fig tree withered away. And when the disciples saw it, they marveled, saying, ‘How did the fig tree wither away so soon?' So Jesus answered and said to them, ‘Assuredly, I say to you, if you have faith and do not doubt, you will not only do what was done to the fig tree but also if you say to this mountain, ‘Be removed and be cast into the sea,' it will be done. And whatever things you ask in prayer, believing, you will receive.'"

In Matthew 21:1-11 Jesus made His triumphal entry into Jerusalem, went inside the temple complex, and saw the people exploiting others by turning the house of worship into a den of thieves. So Jesus cleansed the temple by running people out of it (Matthew 21:12-17). In Matthew 21:18-22 Jesus withered the fig tree. Why? Because the fig tree represented the fruitless nation of Israel who no longer produced fruit because of what they had done to God's temple. So the disciples asked Jesus the question on how the fig tree withered up so quickly; and Jesus responded: "Assuredly, I say to you, if you have faith and do not doubt, you will not only do what was done to the fig tree but also if you say to this mountain, ‘Be removed and be cast into the sea,' it will be done. And whatever things you ask in prayer, believing, you will receive." If we place this in its historical context, then Jesus' words become meaningful to us. He is talking to His disciples who will be given the power that comes from the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:44-49; Acts 1:4-8; 2:1-4), which would include this miraculous gift of faith. When Jesus stated "this mountain", Jesus was evidently talking about Mount Zion where the physical temple was built. He was stating that this whole mountain where Jerusalem, the faithless city stood, could be removed and cast out into the sea (a judgment from God). He was most likely thinking of the Mediterranean Sea as a possibility since it was 30 miles from Jerusalem. Jesus would later talk about the parables of the wicked vinedressers (Matthew 21:33-44) and the wedding feast (Matthew 22:1-14) that both mention the destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman armies (a judgment from God upon the nation of Israel in A.D. 70). He would later give His Olivet discourse that prophesied of its destruction in A.D. 70 (Matthew 24:1-34).

This first-century miraculous gift gave the Christian recipient automatic trust in God without doubting, thus giving him the courage to boldly pray as well as face the severest of persecution (James 1:5-6; 5:14-15). It is a gift that is no longer available today since we have the word of God we can place our full confidence and trust (Romans 10:17).

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Did David Sin When He Ate The Tabernacle Showbread?

Yes, he did.

The Gospels record the account of the Pharisees castigating Jesus' disciples for eating from the grain fields on the Sabbath day (Matthew 12:1-8; Mark 2:23-28; Luke 6:1-5). In response to the Pharisees' unjust accusation, Jesus sites the historical account of David eating the showbread - an act only lawful for the priests in 1 Samuel 21:1-6. Some people have misconstrued this passage to teach that Jesus was upholding "Situation Ethics" and that David actually did not sin on this occasion. Such, however, is not the case.

1. Under the law of Moses, the showbread was only reserved for the priests (Matthew 12:3,4; Leviticus 24:5-9) [NOTE: We need to recognize once again the principle of authority. If you read Leviticus 24:5-9 very carefully, it states that "it shall be for Aaron and his sons, and they shall eat it in a holy place." Notice that it does not say "for Aaron and his sons only". The principle of "scriptural authority" does not require such. Even Jesus recognized this principle of authority. Those in the denominational world and some congregations of the Lord's church need to take heed to this principle.]
2. One must understand the historical/cultural context. The Pharisees had added many man-made traditions to the Law of Moses (Matthew 15:8-9). They especially liked to make up their own requirements pertaining to the Sabbath. The idea of threshing wheat on the Sabbath being a violation of the Sabbath was the doctrine of the Pharisees and not the Law of Moses.
3. Jesus refers to the historical incident of David in 1 Samuel 21 to point out the Pharisees' inconsistency. The Pharisees placed David on a very high moral pedestal and were less likely to condemn David for his sinful act recorded in 1 Samuel 21 (David clearly violated Leviticus 24:5-9). Yet, the Pharisees were quick to unrighteously condemn Jesus' disciples who had done nothing wrong!
4. Jesus posed a second question (Matthew 12:5) to further expose the inconsistencies of the Pharisees by mentioning that the priests were very busy working on the Sabbath day because they had many duties to complete (such as the changing of the showbread on the Sabbath, Leviticus 24:8; the associated duties of animal sacrifices on the Sabbath; and other priestly duties). Therefore, according to the Pharisees' flawed, hypocritical judgement, the Pharisees should have viewed their priests as "profaning" the Sabbath by "working" these works on the Sabbath (when in fact, the priests were not violating the Sabbath because God authorized some work to be completed on the Sabbath by the priests).

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Is The Bible Only Prohibiting Homosexual Behavior That Involves Forced Rape?

Matthew Vines is a popular speaker and author who has advocated the position that is not sinful for a Christian to be a practicing homosexual. He claims in his book, God and the Gay Christian, as a tenet of his main thesis that the Bible teaches that the passages that seemingly teach that homosexuality is sinful are passages that are actually referring to those people who are rapists who have forced themselves upon others sexually. That is the illicit type of behavior that is condemned according to Vines. It is not forbidden, according to Vines, for two homosexuals to participate in a consensual, “loving” relationship as he would term it. Is Vines correct?

In the remote context of Romans 1, Paul is giving a clear picture of the downward spiral of wickedness and immoral behavior that the Gentiles had traveled down and how the Gentiles were in dire need of a Savior to save them from their sins.

Within that context, Paul states: “Therefore God also gave them up to uncleanness, in the lusts of their hearts, to dishonor their bodies among themselves, who exchanged the truth of God for the lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the Creator, who is blessed forever. Amen. For this reason, God gave them up to vile passions. For even their women exchanged the natural use for what is against nature. Likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful, and receiving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.”

Does this sound like forced rape? It does not at all. Paul is prohibiting both forced homosexual behavior (with regards to the predator) and those who have consented to give themselves over to that which is vile, unnatural, and shameful. Thanks be to God that He offers the opportunity for people who have committed these immoral acts to escape the penalty of their sin through faith, repentance, and obedience to the gospel of Christ (1 Corinthians 6:9-11).

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Does A Homosexual Who Wants To Repent Who Was Involved In A Homosexual Marriage Need To Divorce?

Even though the SCOTUS ruling by the Supreme Court of the United States now considers homosexual "marriages" as legal as of June 2015, they are not recognized as true marriages in the eyes of God. God defined marriage as between one male and one female for life (Genesis 2:22-24) from the beginning of creation.

What if the situation arose in which a homosexual (who was living in a homosexual "marriage") saw that he or she was living in sin and wanted to become a Christian? What would he or she need to do in order to repent before baptism (Acts 2:38)?

A man or woman needs to show fruits that are worthy of repentance (Matthew 3:8). Even though technically God does not recognize their marriage as a true marriage, they would need to go to the courthouse and obtain a divorce to show that they are no longer a part of this "marital" relationship. They would want the world to know that they are against such immoral behavior (Matthew 19:1-12; 5:16; James 4:1-6; Acts 17:30).

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Why Are Other Gospels Not Included In The New Testament Canon?

Through the years there have been claims that other "gospels" were reportedly found (such as the Gospel of Thomas, Phillip, Mary, etc.). You can find a list of these books on www.earlychristianwritings.com . Why are these not included in our New Testaments along with Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John?

There are several reasons as to why Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John were included in the New Testament canon and the other "gospels" were not.

1. Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John are the earliest gospels. These gospels have been dated from the late 50s A.D. to the late 60s A.D. They were written during the 1st century A.D. just a few decades after the life of Jesus. It is very likely that many of the people who witnessed and saw the events recorded in the gospels could critique the gospel records because they could confirm or deny if those events were true or false. It is interesting from the ancient records we have that people do not critique the historical reliability of the gospel records. We rely upon the earliest documents for their reliability and trustworthiness. In contrast, the apocryphal gospels have been dated in the late 2nd and 3rd centuries A.D., which is a long time after the events occurred with no eyewitnesses to confirm or deny the events that occur in it.
2. Canonical gospels have an incredible connection to the apostolic circle. The apostles were the official representatives who served as ambassadors for Jesus Christ. We have early testimony from the church writers that the canonical gospels were written by the apostles or someone close to an apostle. Matthew and John were apostles and eyewitnesses of the early life of Jesus. The testimony of Papias, an early church writer, claims that Mark wrote down the memoirs of the apostle Peter. Luke was a very close companion of the apostle Paul. There are no authoritative connections to the apocryphal gospels.
3. The canonical gospels lack legendary material. The apocryphal gospels try to fill in the gaps of the canonical gospels and include some outlandish stories that are full of myth and legend. For example, the Infancy Gospel of Thomas has Jesus, when He was young, making clay birds on the Sabbath. If this were authenticated it would not contradict John 2:11. It was in Cana of Galilee where Jesus performed His first miracle. In the Gospel of Peter, the resurrection event includes a very tall Jesus walking out with His head in the clouds and He is followed by a talking cross. These gospels also contain a lot of geographical and historical mistakes that the canonical gospels do not make.
4. The canonical gospels were recognized and copied early by the church. There are a couple of reasons as to why the canonical gospels were recognized. First, many of the early church writers write about them (such as Origen, Iranaeus, Justin Martyr, etc.). Second, the manuscript copies we have of the gospels are numbered around 2,500. They were copied frequently in the early church; whereas the so-called "Gospel of Thomas" has only three fragmentary copies.

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Can A Person Be Taught Wrong, Yet Immersed Scripturally?

No.
John the Immerser taught the people that they must repent of their sins - one of the conditions of receiving the remission of sins (Matthew 3:1,2; Luke 3:7-14). In Matthew 3:7-9, John the Immerser refused to immerse some people. Why?
The text implies that certain Jews must show fruits of repentance as an essential prerequisite before they are legitimate candidates to undergo the baptism of John (Mark 1:4). One of the essential conditions of the present plan of salvation, repentance (Acts 2:38; 17:30), must be shown prior to being immersed for the remission of his sins. The same holds true of the Christian dispensation. If a person refuses to transform his/her life of sin, then that person will not have a scriptural immersion.
[NOTE: For example, there are those who teach a false doctrine in marriage, divorce, and remarriage, that is exemplified when a person who is involved in an adulterous marriage (Matthew 19:9; Colossians 3:5) can be immersed and the sin of adultery is supposedly washed away. If this person does not intend to dissolve this adulterous union, then he/she cannot be scripturally immersed.]
In Acts 19:1-7, Paul came to Ephesus and met twelve men who had received the baptism of John after it had terminated (John’s baptism was valid until the law of Christ was in effect beginning in Acts 2; read also Hebrews 9:15-17). John's baptism also looked forward to the One (Jesus the Messiah) who would come after him (Acts 19:4]. It was forward looking in its approach; but after the gospel of Jesus had come into effect on the Day of Pentecost, then the looking forward focus of John's baptism became null and void since Jesus and His terms/conditions for salvation had already come. John's baptism was no longer acceptable. The “about twelve men” in Ephesus give us a clear case that if one is taught incorrectly and baptized, their baptism is not acceptable and they must be re-baptized!
In order for one to be baptized biblically, according to the terms/conditions of Christ, he/she must know why he/she is being baptized - and it must be according to the teaching of Christ (Acts 2:38; Colossians 2:12). Clearly, if a person believes that he is saved before being baptized, his faith is not according to the teaching of Christ. If a person has not repented, but has been baptized, his baptism is not according to the teaching of Christ. We must understand, repentance is a matter of faith, confessing that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, is a matter of faith; and being baptized in order to have our sins forgiven is a matter of faith (Acts 2:38; 22:16). Therefore, a person who has the faith that he is already saved BEFORE he is baptized is a person who does not have the faith that is according to the teaching of Christ (faith in the working of God of cutting away the sins at the burial, Colossians 2:11-12). He who is taught and believes in the doctrine of man (faith only) cannot be baptized right according to the doctrine of God. Those who would fellowship of those baptized in a denomination under a false plan of salvation and welcome them into the body of Christ, are causing such a one to continue in his sins, and doing great harm to the body of Christ (2 John 1:9-11). They are not “into” the true body of Christ (1 Corinthians 12:13).

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Is Sprinkling or Pouring Baptism?

Though the modern-day English dictionary word "baptism" gives the meaning, "pouring, sprinkling, or immersion", according to New Testament Greek dictionaries and the New Testament there is only one acceptable and authorized mode of baptism and that is immersion. Sprinkling and pouring are not true modes of baptism.

Water baptism is a symbolic representation of the death, burial, and resurrection of Jesus Christ by which we are crucifying our old man (repentance), burying that old man of sin and thus hav ing our sins washed away by the blood of Jesus, and being raised a new creation in Christ (Galatians 2:20; Acts 17:30; Revelation 1:5; Acts 22:16; 2 Corinthians 5:17; Romans 6:3,4,17).
Romans 6:3,4 states: "Or do you not know that as many of us as were baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into His death? Therefore we were buried with Him through baptism into death, that just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life." Phillip and the eunuch both went down into the water because that was necessary for Philip to immerse him (see Acts 8:38).
Colossians 2:11,12 states: "In Him you were also circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, by putting off the body of the sins of the flesh, by the circumcision of Christ, buried with Him in baptism, in which you also were raised with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead."
If you were sprinkled with water or water was poured on you, then you were not baptized into Christ. Please render your faith and obedience to God's true plan of salvation as found in His word.

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What Does The Church of The Firstborn Mean?

Hebrews 12:22-24 states: "But you have come to Mount Zion and to the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, to an innumerable company of angels, to the general assembly and church of the firstborn who are registered in heaven, to God the Judge of all, to the spirits of just men made perfect, to Jesus the Mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling that speaks better things than that of Abel."

First, in the original language, the term "firstborn" is in the plural. It should be translated as "church of the firstborn ones."

Second, we must recognize that Jesus is The "Firstborn." He was given the preeminence (superiority) by God the Father over the new creation (Colossians 1:15-20). He was also preeminent because He arose from the dead and was the first person to die no more (Revelation 1:5).

Third, sinners who trust and obey the gospel of Christ (John 8:24; Acts 17:30; Romans 10:9,10; Acts 2:38) will undergo water baptism to identify with Jesus (Ephesians 1:3,12; 2:13; Acts 22:16 - His precious blood which washes away our sins), the Firstborn One, to also become firstborn ones because they have been raised from water "to walk in newness of life" (Romans 6:3,4). They have experienced a death to the old life of sin, a burial of that old man of sin, and a spiritual resurrection of a new man by God's grace through faith via water immersion. They also look forward if they are faithful (if they should die first) to a physical resurrection from the dead at the end of time (1 Corinthians 15) since Jesus was the first one to rise from the dead to die no more.

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