Why Is There A Distinction Made In John 1:17?
John 1:17 states: "For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ."
It is important to understand what this verse does not teach. Some have taught erroneously from this verse that the Old Testament never had an ounce of grace in it and that the New Testament does not have an ounce of law in it. This is not true at all!
John 1:17 states: "For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ."
It is important to understand what this verse does not teach. Some have taught erroneously from this verse that the Old Testament never had an ounce of grace in it and that the New Testament does not have an ounce of law in it. This is not true at all!
God has always shown grace throughout the three great dispensations of time: the patriarchal age, the Mosaic age, and the Christian age.
The Patriarchal age:
Genesis 6:8: "But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD."
The Mosaic age:
Exodus 33:12-17: "Then Moses said to the LORD, "See, You say to me, "Bring up this people.' But You have not let me know whom You will send with me. Yet You have said, ‘I know you by name, and you have also found grace in My sight.' Now therefore, I pray, if I have found grace in Your sight, show me now Your way, that I may know You and that I may find grace in Your sight. And consider that this nation is Your people." And He said, "My Presence will go with you, and I will give you rest."
Then he said to Him, "If Your Presence does not go with us, do not bring us up from here. For how then will it be known that Your people and I have found grace in Your sight, except You go with us? So we shall be separate, Your people and I, from all the people who are upon the face of the earth." So the LORD said to Moses, "I will also do this thing that you have spoken; for you have found grace in My sight, and I know you by name."
The Christian age:
John 1:14: "And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth."
If we were to take this erroneous doctrine to its logical conclusion, then the Old Testament was not truth either! But it was the truth because God had revealed this system of revealed truth to the Israelites by which they were to be guided until the Messiah should come (Psalm 119:30,142,151,160; Galatians 3:22-25). It would also be the case that there would be no sin - because where there is no law, there is no sin (Romans 4:15; 1 John 3:4)!
The new covenant is a law that we are to follow today (1 Corinthians 9:19-23; Hebrews 8).
Since both systems are bodies of law, containing both grace and truth, then why did John make this distinction?
The Old Testament was primarily defined by the New Testament writers as a law that (a) defines what sin is (Romans 7:7); (b) when broken, separates the law-violator from fellowship with God (Isaiah 59:1,2); and (c) requires a penalty from the Divine Judge for law-breakers (Romans 3:21-26).
The New Testament was primarily defined by the New Testament writers as a law that stressed the Divine mission of the Savior who had come to bring redemption to those who were lost in sin (Luke 19:10). It stresses the ultimate meaning of grace and truth - that salvation was found exclusively in Jesus and the church that He founded (2 Timothy 2:10; John 14:6; Matthew 16:18).
When the gospel writers were writing their gospel accounts, they wrote concerning some of the Jews who thought that they could earn their own salvation by perfectly keeping the law of Moses. But nobody (except Christ, Hebrews 4:15) could ever keep the law perfectly. Therefore everybody was found to be in sin (Romans 3:23) and needed the Savior!
Romans 10:1-3 states: "Brethren, my heart's desire and prayer to God for Israel is that they may be saved. For I bear them witness that they have a zeal for God, but not according to knowledge. For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and seeking to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted to the righteousness of God." John was writing so that the Jews could see that the law of Moses was pointing in types, shadows, and prophecies that a Savior was coming who was "full of grace and truth" (John 1:14).
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Does Matthew 18:20 Exempt Christians From Attending The Regular Worship Assembly?
Some Christians quote Matthew 18:20 to try to justify their practice of going out on Sunday to fish, golf, attend travel ball or perform some other recreational activity, missing the first-day-of-the-week assembly and simply holding their "own services" since two or three are gathered. Many verses like this are abused in like manner (such as, Matthew 7:1 where people claim that you cannot judge (see our Question in the Q & A- Is It A Sin To Judge?).
Some Christians quote Matthew 18:20 to try to justify their practice of going out on Sunday to fish, golf, attend travel ball or perform some other recreational activity, missing the first-day-of-the-week assembly and simply holding their "own services" since two or three are gathered. Many verses like this are abused in like manner (such as, Matthew 7:1 where people claim that you cannot judge.
This verse has to be put into its whole context: Matthew 18:15-20: "Moreover if your brother sins against you, go and tell him his fault between you and him alone. If he hears you, you have gained your brother. But if he will not hear, take with you one or two more, that 'by the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.' And if he refuses to hear them, tell it to the church. But if he refuses even to hear the church, let him be to you like a heathen and a tax collector. Assuredly, I say to you, whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven. Again I say to you that if two of you agree on earth concerning anything that they ask, it will be done for them by My Father in heaven. For where two or three are gathered together in My name, I am there in the midst of them."
The context indicates that Jesus is talking about conflict resolution, not the worship assembly. Notice there is a progression of what is to happen to gain your brother or sister in Christ back if they have sinned against you. First, you are to go to them personally. If that does not work, secondly, you are to bring two or three witnesses. If that does not work, then every church member ought to go to that erring brother or sister so that he/she may be regained. Notice that Jesus goes back to the part about two or three witnesses because such was done in His name (by His authority - Colossians 3:17). Therefore Jesus will be honored when His commandments are being obeyed by that company of His precious followers who are trying to do the right thing.
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What Is The Baptism of Fire?
John the Immerser, who served as the forerunner of the Messiah, said in Matthew 3:11, "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire." What is the baptism of fire?
John the Immerser, who served as the forerunner of the Messiah, said in Matthew 3:11, "I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire." What is the baptism of fire?
Some mistakenly think the baptism of fire is somehow connected to the "tongues of fire" the apostles received, mentioned in Acts 2:1-4.
Let us consider the context of this passage for the answer. Matthew 3:12 states, "His winnowing fan is in His hand, and He will thoroughly clean out His threshing floor, and gather His wheat into the barn; but He will burn up the chaff with unquenchable fire." It is certainly clear, from the context in Matthew 3 and Luke 3:16,17, that John was referring to two classes of people in which some were promised to be immersed in the Holy Spirit (Acts 1:4,5; 2:1-4 indicates this promise was exclusively for the apostles who were once John's disciples) and in which some of the other class of people were going to be immersed in fire (if they did not render obedience to the gospel of Christ, 2 Thessalonians 1:7-9). The context shows that the fire represented here is the symbol of conscious eternal punishment that the wicked will suffer because they will be thrown into the eternal lake of fire on the day of judgment like the Bible describes (Matthew 3:11,12; Revelation 21:8; 20:14,15).
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Is Giving An Authorized And Mandatory Activity of Worship?
For something to be authorized means that it must be Divinely sanctioned (Colossians 3:17). For something to be mandatory means that it is something that must be done. Does giving financial means to the Lord's work fall under both categories? Is it authorized and mandatory?
It is certainly authorized to give of one's financial resources to the Lord's work as we see throughout the Scriptures some examples of the church of Christ giving on various occasions (Acts 4:34-36; 6:1-7; 20:35) to help those who were in need. But is it also mandatory to give of one's financial resources?
For something to be authorized means that it must be Divinely sanctioned (Colossians 3:17). For something to be mandatory means that it is something that must be done. Does giving financial means to the Lord's work fall under both categories? Is it authorized and mandatory?
It is certainly authorized to give of one's financial resources to the Lord's work as we see throughout the Scriptures some examples of the church of Christ giving on various occasions (Acts 4:34-36; 6:1-7; 20:35) to help those who were in need. But is it also mandatory to give of one's financial resources?
We must be honest with the Scriptures and be certain that they are being interpreted correctly. Sometimes we can go to one extreme by abusing a verse or verses, taking them out of their context. We must not at the same time go to the other extreme in believing that there is not a single principle in the Scriptures that would lend to the idea that it is not mandatory to give.
1 Corinthians 16:1,2 is a reference to the weekly, first-day-of-the-week collection for the poor saints in Judea that was going to be given financially by the Gentile congregations (2 Corinthians 8,9; Romans 15). It was meaningful because it would show the unity that they shared together as the one body of Christ as well as meet the physical needs of their Jewish brethren who had helped meet the spiritual needs of the Gentiles by sharing the gospel (Ephesians 1:22,23). Paul had ordered the congregation at Corinth (a predominately Gentile congregation) to do as the churches of Galatia had been instructed by storing up necessary funds to give to the poor saints in Judea.
It is very clear from this passage that these congregations were meeting a legitimate need that required financial resources. Therefore, whenever it is the case that the church is obligated to meet a legitimate need, then it has the authority from the Scriptures and is commanded to meet that certain need.
For example, 1 Timothy 5:3-16 is teaching the church to honor widows who are widows indeed. In this context, to honor actually means to financially help a faithful, Christian widow in need who is of a certain age and character (thus the word “indeed”) by paying for her Christian services. The word “honor” is a present active imperative verb. The imperative means it is a command. Therefore, it is a command for the church to take care of needy, Christian widows indeed (also read Matthew 15:4-6; 1 Timothy 5:17-18, where “counted” is in the imperative; James 1:27). If there are no needy Christian widows indeed in the church, then the church is not obligated to fulfill this command because there is no existing cause.
Another example is that in 1 Corinthians 9:1-14, especially verse 14, that gospel preachers ought to be supported financially: “Even so the Lord has commanded that those who preach the gospel should live from the gospel.” The Lord has commanded and enjoined upon the church to take care of their minister who is working in the vineyard of the Lord. Therefore, it is a command for the church to give financially to help support the preacher (unless the preacher, for whatever reason, refuses his right to receive support, 1 Corinthians 9:18; see also Philippians 4:15-16).
So long as there are legitimate, financial needs to be met by the local church, such as spreading the gospel, edifying the church, and meeting benevolent causes among the membership and community, giving as an action of worship on the first day of every week is not only authorized but mandatory in fulfilling the work and worship of the church.
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Can A Person Live In Adultery/Fornication?
Some false teachers have proposed that a person cannot live in the state of adultery/fornication. The Bible teaches otherwise
Some false teachers have proposed that a person cannot live in the state of adultery/fornication. The Bible teaches otherwise. Fornication is the broader term for any unlawful sexual intercourse. All adultery is fornication, but not all fornication is adultery. Colossians 3:5-7 states: "Therefore put to death your members which are on the earth: fornication, uncleanness, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry. Because of these things the wrath of God is coming upon the sons of disobedience, in which you yourselves once walked when you lived in them." Jesus describes marriages that are not scriptural as "committing adultery" marriages in the present tense (Matthew 5:32; 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; Luke 16:18). Unless the context indicates otherwise (in these passages it does not), the present tense indicates a continuous, ongoing action or behavior (a way of life or living). As long as a person continues in a "committing adultery" marriage, they are living in adultery. They are "walking" in darkness/sin (way of life, behavior) and NOT in the light/salvation; therefore, the blood of Jesus is not continuing to cleans them (study the actions described in 1 John 1:6-7, 9; they are also in the present tense and indicate continuous action/behavior/way of life).
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Where Is The Sinner's Prayer Found In The Bible?
It is found nowhere in the Bible.
It is found nowhere in the Bible.
Every year millions of people are being told to say the sinner's prayer and they will be saved. Is the sinner's prayer a biblical way of salvation? If so, where is it found in the Bible? Although multitudes of people say the sinner's prayer as a means of salvation, the shocking truth is
THE SINNER'S PRAYER is not even found in the Bible one time! The sinner's prayer usually goes something like this:
"Heavenly Father, I know that I am a sinner and that I deserve to go to hell. I believe that Jesus Christ died on the cross for my sins. I do now receive him as my Lord and personal Savior. I promise to serve you to the best of my ability. Please save me. In Jesus' name, Amen."
A person can search his Bible from Genesis 1:1 through Revelation 22:21 and never find this prayer or any variation of it mentioned anywhere in Scripture. Why then do so many people believe the sinner's prayer saves? People believe this is a way of salvation because they have put their trust in men and not God. The sinner's prayer originated in America and was especially popularized by Baptist preacher Billy Graham (as well as Billy Sunday and Bill Bright). Over the last half century Billy Graham and denominational preachers like him, have taught multiplied millions of people a way of salvation that is not even found in the Bible! Remember, the Bible says "there is a way that seems right to a man, but the end thereof is the way of death" (Proverbs 16:25).
Although the sinner's prayer is not found anywhere in Scripture, there are a couple of passages people use to justify it. Some religious leaders believe Acts 2:21 warrants a person saying a sinner's prayer for salvation. The Apostle Peter said, "whoever calls on the name of the Lord will be saved" (Acts 2:21). Is this passage teaching that we must say the sinner's prayer to be saved? Certainly not. There is a big difference in Scripture between calling on God for salvation and a prayer to God. If we will use the Scriptures correctly we can see exactly what it means to "call" on God. A divine commentary on how to call on the name of the Lord is given in Acts 22:16. Saul is told, "And now why are you waiting? Arise and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord." According to the Scripture, to call on the name of the Lord means that we get up and obey God's teaching concerning baptism. This is the exact same thing the people who called on God in Acts 2 were told to do - and what they did (Acts 2:37-38, 41).
Another passage that is often cited in support of the sinner's prayer is Luke 18:13. In contrast to the hypocritical Pharisee, the tax collector "beat his breast, saying, 'God, be merciful to me a sinner!'" Is this text authorizing a sinner's prayer as a means of salvation? This passage is not an example of New Testament salvation because this man was still living under the Old Testament and Christ's law had not gone into effect yet (Hebrews 9:15-17). If this were an example of salvation, it would only be an Old Testament example and would have no bearing on the salvation of men and women today. Thus, neither one of these passages teach that the sinner's prayer is a means of salvation.
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What Must Christians Do In Relationship To Islam?
1. Christians must not fear Muslims.
The command "do not fear" or "do not be afraid" is found frequently in the Scriptures (Matthew 10:28-31). Fear is the antithesis of faith. We see examples where fear crowded out the faith of individuals such as Abraham when he went down to Egypt with Sarah (Genesis 12:10-13). God had promised Abraham some great promises earlier in Genesis 12:1-3. Abraham must have believed that God would not keep His word because he thought he was going to be killed. So he chose the option of lying instead. Peter allowed the boisterous waves and wind to strike fear instead of focusing faith on the Creator of the sea (Matthew 14:29,30). Ten out of the twelve spies of Canaan felt like grasshoppers before the Caananites and did not believe that the land could be taken, even though God had promised them the land and they needed to exercise faith in taking it (Numbers 13:31-14:1,6-9). Remember that God is in control and He is on the throne (Revelation 4).
2. Christians must love Muslims.
We must do that which is best for our neighbor if we really love them. We ought to try to win our Muslim neighbors to Jesus, the one true Son of God, and to His true church (Matthew 5:43-48; 1 John 4:18; 1 Corinthians 13:4-8).
3. We must pray for Muslims.
We must continue to pray that Muslims will hear and obey the true gospel of Christ (Matthew 5:43-48; Luke 23:34; Acts 2:40,41; James 5:16,17). Jesus prayed for His enemies while He was on the cross and His prayer was later answered when some of them rendered obedience to the gospel on the Day of Pentecost.
4. We must be ready to give an answer of the reason of the hope that lies within us with fear and meekness to Muslims.
We must be ready to help Muslims understand the truth of the Christian system. We need to be ready to address their questions (1 Peter 3:15; Philippians 1:17; 2 Corinthians 10:3-5). Let me address an acronym, READY, to help us spread the gospel to our Muslim neighbors.
R - Read the Qur'an and Islamic history
You can receive a free Qur'an by going to www.freequraan.org.uk. On www.archive.org, there are several books written on the history of the Qur'an that were written during the 1600s - 1800s that will help you to know the true history of the spread of Islam, not the politically correct revised version.
A Christian can have a great impact on a Muslim if a Christian has told them that they have read all of the Qur'an. You will have greater credibility and may have a greater chance to lead them to Jesus (John 14:6).
E - Evidence For The Faithful Transmission of the Bible
When a Muslim makes the claim that the Bible has been corrupted in its transmission, ask them these questions: (1) When was it corrupted? (2) Where was it corrupted? It would take a great world-wide conspiracy to have controlled the whole transmission of the text. We know this because (1) the New Testament authors expected a wider audience in which these congregations would copy the inspired letters and would send them on to other congregations (Colossians 4:16; 1 Corinthians 1:2), (2) there was a widespread circulation of the inspired letters in which numerous copies would be made (Galatians 1:2; 1 Peter 1:1), and (3) the early Christians quoted from the New Testament documents frequently who lived in various locations showing that the New Testament had circulated around the Mediterranean region. Please consult The New Testament In The Apostolic Fathers. Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1905 (free on www.archive.org ).
We admit that there are many copyist's mistakes made, but when put together with all the manuscript evidence, we can be certain that it has affected no change of any doctrine.
A - Asking Questions About The Differences
There are several differences between the Qur'an and the Bible that need to be addressed, which certainly shows that both of them could not have originated from the same Author. This is one of the reasons why Muslims believe that the Bible has been corrupted in its transmission over the centuries. There are other differences between the Bible and the Qur'an, but this ought to help motivate both Christians and Muslims to open up honest discussion with the differences that lie between them.
- Surah 2:249; Judges 7:1-8 - There is a discrepancy between the historical accounts in that in the Qur'an it is Saul and his men who were tested while in the Bible it was Gideon and his men who were tested.
- Surah 11:42-44 - One of Noah's sons (unnamed) drowned in the great Flood while in the Bible all of Noah's three sons lived because they were on the ark.
- Surah 19:10; Luke 1:22,59-64- There is a great discrepancy in the historical accounts in that Zechariah, the father of John the Immerser, could not speak for three days while in Luke's account he could not speak until the child was born after eight days.
- Surah 19:28; Luke 3:28-38 - There is a great discrepancy in that Mary, the mother of Jesus, is also mistakenly called Miriam, the sister of Aaron.
- Surah 20:95 - A Samaritan appears in the golden calf narrative - when it is a matter of historical fact that Samaritans did not appear until 700 years later.
- Surah 26:49 - The Pharaoh from the time of Moses is using crucifixion - when it is a matter of historical fact that crucifixion was not used as a form of punishment until much later in history.
- Surah 28:6; 40:24,36 - The Pharaoh of Moses and Haman both live together in the time of Moses to build the tower of Babel, but the Tower of Babel occurred several hundred years before
- Surah 29:32 - There is a theological problem in that the Qur'an portrays Lot's wife as foreordained to be destroyed, yet the Bible proclaims that all human beings have free moral agency and God grants them their choices to repent (2 Peter 3:9).
- Surah 38:22-24; 2 Samuel 12:1-7 - There are great differences in the parable that Nathan told David when he had previously committed adultery with Bathsheba.
D - Death of Jesus - Did It Really Happen?
In Surah 4:176, the Qur'an states that Jesus did not die on the cross. This is a great historical problem for Muslims because the prophecies of the Old Testament (Isaiah 53; Psalm 22), the New Testament documents, the first generation of Christians, the second generation of Christians, Jewish sources (such as Josephus, the Talmud), Gentile sources (such as Lucian, Tacitus, Mera bar Serapion) accurately record that Jesus died on the cross. This is the "death knell" of Islam. An honest individual would access the evidence and have to admit that there is a greater preponderance of evidence that Jesus did die on the cross than listen to a document that came 600 years later after the fact.
Y - Your God and My God - Are They The Same God?
It is often assumed by many that Allah is the God of the Old and New Testaments, but when a person reads the Qur'an and Bible carefully, the many major differences show that the god of the Qur'an is not the God of the Bible.
The Qur'an portrays a gross misrepresentation of what the Bible teaches about the Trinity (Surah 5:72,73,116). It portrays the Trinity as made up of God the Father, God the Son, and Mary, the Mother of God. The Bible teaches that the Trinity is made up of one God who is composed of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit (Matthew 28:18-20). They are not three separate Gods, but one God who is composed of three Persons.
If Allah could enter into space-time-matter, then Jesus could enter into space-time-matter. Please consult the Question in the Q & A: How Can God Die?
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What Is Speaking In Tongues?
There are a number of differences between what the Bible teaches and what denominations claim constitutes "speaking in tongues". In studying Acts 2:1-4, 6-11, 43; 10:44-47; 11:15-17; 1 Corinthians 12:7-11, 29-30; 13:8; 14:5, 22, 26-28, 33, 40 - a person concludes that the New Testament indicates that speaking in tongues...
There are a number of differences between what the Bible teaches and what denominations claim constitutes "speaking in tongues". In studying Acts 2:1-4, 6-11, 43; 10:44-47; 11:15-17; 1 Corinthians 12:7-11, 29-30; 13:8; 14:5, 22, 26-28, 33, 40 - a person concludes that the New Testament indicates that speaking in tongues...
- Came unexpectedly - while denominational advocates state that it is a gift that must be sought for with time.
- Came instantaneously - while denominational advocates state that the gift comes in many cases after a long delay.
- Are real, known languages that can be understood - while denominational advocates claim that they are not real languages.
- Must be translated by an interpreter - while some denominational advocates state that they do not and in some cases cannot be translated by an interpreter.
- Must be spoken in a decent and orderly manner in an assembly - while some denominational advocates claim they can be random and that it is be acceptable for several to be speaking in tongues at the same time in the assembly with no particular order.
- Was an ability given by God for a specific purpose and for a limited in the first century A.D. to only a few Christians- while some denominational advocates teachthat the gift must be obtained by all as evidence of their salvation (that is, reception of baptism in the Holy Spirit).
- Were secondary in importance - while some denominational advocates claim that they are superior.
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Should The Lord's Supper Be Transported To The Sick?
This question cannot be answered with a "yes" or "no" as will be explained. Transporting the Lord's Supper to sick Christians who are unable to attend worship is an issue that will have to be reserved for every congregation of the Lord's church to decide.
This question cannot be answered with a "yes" or "no" as will be explained. Transporting the Lord's Supper to sick Christians who are unable to attend worship is an issue that will have to be reserved for every congregation of the Lord's church to decide.
We must remember that the early church came together for the purpose of partaking of the Lord's Supper on the first day of the week (Acts 20:7; 1 Corinthians 11:20). It is a special act of worship that is to be done in unison by the whole congregation because they are sharing together in partaking of the emblems that represent what the Lord did on the cross for their sins. Sharing these elements together requires coming together. Transporting the Lord's Supper to Christians at their homes or the nursing home is not a requirement, but could be an expedient.
If it is the case that there are certain Christians (who are in a nursing home or sick at home) who want to partake of the Lord's Supper, their local congregation is at liberty to provide this service to them. Let it be noted though that it would be just as important to involve all the other actions of worship such as praying, singing, giving, and listening to God's word as you engage in this first-day-of-the-week worship (Acts 2:42).
When people are too sick to assemble for worship, God excuses them for not being able to partake of the Lord's Supper (Matthew 12:7). God does not expect the impossible. However, if Christians willfully choose to stay away from the worship assembly, they sin and God holds them guilty of not honoring and glorifying Him (Hebrews 10:25-26).
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How Are People Baptized By One Spirit Into One Body?
1 Corinthians 12:13 states: "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body; whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free; and have all been made to drink into one Spirit."
The immersion mentioned here is an immersion that results in people being placed into the body of Christ. The body of Christ is the church of Christ (Ephesians 1:22-23). Which immersion results in people being placed into the body of Christ - the immersion in the Holy Spirit or water immersion?
1 Corinthians 12:13 states: "For by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body; whether Jews or Greeks, whether slaves or free; and have all been made to drink into one Spirit."
The immersion mentioned here is an immersion that results in people being placed into the body of Christ. The body of Christ is the church of Christ (Ephesians 1:22-23). Which immersion results in people being placed into the body of Christ - the immersion in the Holy Spirit or water immersion?
1. The immersion in the Holy Spirit was administered by Jesus Himself. It was never administered by any other (Mark 1:8). Water immersion is administered by men (Acts 8:36-39; 10:47,48) and is designated to place people into fellowship with God (Matthew 28:19).
2. The immersion in the Holy Spirit was a promise (Mark 1:8; Luke 24:44-49; Acts 1:4-5), not a command. People receive promises. People obey commands. Water immersion is a command to be obeyed (Acts 2:38; 10:47,48) whereas the immersion in the Holy Spirit is a promise to be received (Luke 24:44-49; Acts 1:4,5).
3. The immersion in the Holy Spirit was not for the purpose of saving people from their sins because it was promised to a certain group of men (the apostles) who were already saved from their sins. [NOTE: Please consult our question: "Does Immersion In The Holy Spirit Save People From Their Sins?"]. It was for the purpose of guiding these men into all the truth, allowing them to perform a variety of miracles that confirmed the message that they preached was truly from God (Mark 16:20; Hebrews 2:4). It also equipped other new Christians in the first century by the laying on of the apostles' hands in giving them miraculous power for confirmation of the true message (Acts 2:38; 8:14-16; 19:1-7). Water immersion saves people from their sins because we come into contact with the cleansing blood of Christ through faith in the working of God (Colossians 2:11,12; Revelation 1:5; Romans 6:3,4; 1 Peter 3:21).
4. Water immersion is an immersion that is for everyone who believes and wants to be saved (Mark 16:15,16) whereas the immersion in the Holy Spirit was for a select few (Acts 1:4,5; 2:1-4; John 14-16). But the baptism mentioned in 1 Corinthians 12:13 is something that all Christians have experienced - "by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body." This immersion in 1 Corinthians 12:13 fits water immersion rather than immersion in the Holy Spirit.
6. What happened to the about 3,000 souls who obeyed the commands to repent and be baptized for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38)? They were added to the church (Acts 2:41,47), which is the body of Christ (Colossians 1:18, 13).
7. The preposition "by" is used in the sense of an instrument. It was by the agency of the Holy Spirit that people were added to the one body - the church. Since the Holy Spirit revealed "the faith" (the revealed system of truth) to the apostles and prophets on how one could be saved from their sins, then it can be clearly seen "by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body."
Holy Spirit -----------> The Faith ----------------------> Baptized Into The Body of Christ
(1 Corinthians 12:13) (Galatians 3:26-29) (Acts 2:41,47; Colossians 1:18)
8. The conclusion that we learn from 1 Corinthians 12:13 is through the agency of the Holy Spirit revealing God's word (via through the inspired writers of the New Testament) people are immersed into water and hence into the one true church, the church of Christ.
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What Does Jesus Mean By I Came Not To Destroy The Law, But To Fulfill It?
When Jesus was giving the Sermon on the Mount, some Jews thought Jesus had come to overthrow the Law of Moses. This serves as the reason why Jesus gave these preliminary remarks to reassure the Jews that He did not come to overthrow it, but to fulfill it.
Matthew 5:17 states: "Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill."
The word "destroy" (kataluo) means to "destroy, demolish, overthrow, throw down." The word "fulfill" (pleroo) means to "to fill, fill up, complete."
Notice carefully what Jesus did not state. He did not say He came to perpetuate the Law of Moses. He did not say it would stand as long as heaven and earth stood. Many people misunderstand Jesus here because they have the misconception that if Jesus did not come to destroy the Law of Moses, then He must have come to perpetuate it. Absolutely not! Notice the contrasts: destroy versus fulfill, not destroy versus perpetuate.
If Jesus had perpetuated the Law of Moses, then He would have destroyed it. Why would that be the case? Because the Law of Moses was full of promises (called prophecies). If one perpetuates a promise (prophecy), he destroys them.
Example: Suppose that I had made a deal on Monday with a man named Tom who deals in gold and silver. He tells me that there is a man named Jack who wants to sell his 1,000 pieces of silver for $14.00 an ounce at spot price ($14.00 x 1,000 silver pieces = $14,000) and that the spot price was going to rise in a couple of days to $17.00 ($17.00x 1,000 silver pieces = $17,000) and that if I buy Jack's silver, then I can sell it back to Tom, making a profit of $3,000 ($17,000 - $14,000). Suppose Tom tells me that he promises he will wire the money and it will be transferred to my checking account on Friday. Suppose it does not come Friday. It does not come for even two weeks. In fact, it just keeps on lingering.
When a man (in this case, Tom) makes a promise he must eventually fulfill the promise. If he keeps prolonging the promise, but never fulfills what he said he would do, he as broken his promise - destroying it.
When Jesus fulfills promises, prophecies, and types that are found in the Law of Moses, he passes from the stage of the unfulfilled to the fulfilled.
For example, Jeremiah promised a new covenant that would be established in Jeremiah 31:31-34. If Jesus had not come to establish a new covenant, then He would have destroyed that promise. But He did fulfill that promise (Matthew 26:28; Hebrews 9:15-17).
If we understand what Jesus means by "destroy", then it would mean that He would prevent the Law of Moses from fulfilling its purpose (goal), but He fulfills the purpose of the Law of Moses (Romans 10:4). If we wrongly define what Jesus means by "destroy", then we would have Jesus preventing what the prophets had predicted from the past. On the contrary, Jesus completes the prophecies concerning Himself (Luke 24:27).
Instead of destroying the purpose of the Law and the predictions made by the prophets, Jesus came to fulfill them. The Law was "taken out of the way," not by destruction, but rather by fulfillment (Colossians 2:14-17).
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Should Snake Handling Be Practiced In Worship Today?
No.
Over the years, there have been many tragic deaths as a result of denominational preachers handling snakes in the worship assembly - tragically they are bitten by a poisonous snake and die. Many of these snake handlers will attempt to point to the Scriptures to justify their use of snake handling today, such as Mark 16:17-18, "And these signs will follow those who believe: In My name they will cast out demons; they will speak with new tongues; they will take up serpents; and if they drink anything deadly, it will by no means hurt them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover".
While the church was growing to maturity during the miraculous age in the first century A.D., Acts 28:3-6 mentions a case where the promise of Mark 16:17-18 was fulfilled: "But when Paul had gathered a bundle of sticks and laid them on the fire, a viper came out because of the heat, and fastened on his hand. So when the natives saw the creature hanging from his hand, they said to one another, ‘No doubt this man is a murderer, whom, though he has escaped the sea, yet justice does not allow to live.' But he shook off the creature into the fire and suffered no harm. However, they were expecting that he would swell up or suddenly fall down dead. But after they had looked for a long time and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds and said that he was a god." After the natives of the island saw that Paul was unaffected, they were open and more receptive to Paul's message.
There is a stark contrast between modern snake handlers and the apostle in that Paul was not even affected by the venomous bite. Why do some denominational snake handlers die by the poisonous snakes they handle, but Paul walks away unscathed?
One of the principles of hermeneutics (the science of interpreting the Scriptures) is that there is a clear distinction between the age of miracles and the fact that God does not work miracles today. Miracles were performed in the days of the early church because it was to validate and confirm the new message of God's revelation, which has been completely given (2 Peter 1:3; 1 Corinthians 13:8-13). The promise of snake handling was directly tied to the purpose of the miraculous age - confirming the word of God (Mark 16:20; Hebrews 2:3-4). The word of God has been confirmed by the recorded miracles written down. Please consult our question on the Q & A section: What Are The Differences Between What Denominations Claim As Miracles Today And What The Bible Teaches?
Thus, when a person tries to take that which had a specific purpose, a specific time frame, and attempt to apply it today, it is certain to lead to tragedy! Miraculous handling of poisonous snakes passed away with the passing of miracles (1 Corinthians 13:8-13). Furthermore, it was never used as part of Christian worship in the first century A.D. (hence added by man, Matthew 15:8,9).
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Is A Non-Christian Saved When He/She Is Married To A Christian?
"But to the rest I, not the Lord, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her. And a woman who has a husband who does not believe, if he is willing to live with her, let her not divorce him. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband; otherwise, your children would be unclean, but now they are holy. But if the unbeliever departs, let him depart; a brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases. But God has called us to peace. For how do you know, O wife, whether you will save your husband? Or how do you know, O husband, whether you will save your wife?"
"But to the rest I, not the Lord, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her. And a woman who has a husband who does not believe, if he is willing to live with her, let her not divorce him. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband; otherwise your children would be unclean, but now they are holy. But if the unbeliever departs, let him depart; a brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases. But God has called us to peace. For how do you know, O wife, whether you will save your husband? Or how do you know, O husband, whether you will save your wife?"
Some people have made the misapplication from 1 Corinthians 7:14 that whenever a Christian marries a non-Christian, then that non-Christian automatically becomes a "Christian" (that is, saved in the sight of God). This is not true for several reasons as we will show.
In this section of the Corinthian letter, Paul is answering questions that the Corinthian brethren had asked him. From examining the context, the question that was asked in 1 Corinthian 7:12-15 was: "Should a Christian spouse leave the non-Christian spouse?" The answer is negative. Christian spouses must do all they can to uphold their marriage.
- First, it would contradict 1 Peter 3:1-7. In this context, Peter is stating that a Christian wife needs to be submissive to her non-Christian husband (as long as it aligns with God's will - Acts 5:29). If she shows a chaste and holy life, her husband might become converted to the truth. This obviously proves that he did not automatically become a Christian as soon as he married the Christian or as soon as she obeyed the gospel during their marriage
- Second, the idea of someone being saved through the obedience of someone else (proxy salvation) is a doctrine contrary to the doctrine of Christ (Acts 2:40; 22:16; Philippians 2:12; etc.)
- Third, Paul shows a clear distinction between "unbeliever" and "brother or sister", indicating that the non-Christian is not in a state of belief or salvation. Jesus will take vengeance on all unbelievers when He comes again, whether they are married to a Christian or not (2 Thessalonians 1:7-9; Revelation 21:8).
- Fourth, the word "sanctified" means "set apart." While this word is often used in respect to salvation, it can also be used in other ways. Here the word means that the Christian spouse will be able to have an influence that is separate/distinct from the world and its evil influence (1 John 2:15-17; Romans 12:1,2). Spouses and children growing up in a home where there is at least one godly influence have a light/salt/pillar that could lead them out of the bondage of sin and into the cleansing blood of Jesus (2 Timothy 1:5; 3:15; Matthew 5:13-16; 1 Timothy 3:15).
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Is The Predestination of Calvinism True?
Does the Bible teach that where you end up in eternity has been predetermined randomly and that there is nothing we can personally do about it? Absolutely not! Such false teaching contradicts the following true propositions:
- God does not want anyone to perish (therefore, if salvation does not involve our choice, every human would be going to heaven, 1 Timothy 2:4; 2 Peter 3:9).
- God does not show partiality but is just and fair (therefore, He does not arbitrarily choose who goes to heaven and who goes to hell - Acts 10:34-35).
- Jesus died for everyone (not just for a few that God randomly chose; otherwise, what purpose would it have served for Jesus to become a human and die for humans whom His Father had already chosen to go to heaven?, 1 Timothy 2:6; Hebrews 2:9).
- God designed us as creatures of choice (including the choice to work out our own salvation or not, Genesis 2:15-17; Joshua 24:15; Isaiah 7:16; Luke 10:38-42; Acts 6:2-5; 13:45-46; Philippians 2:14).
- The gospel is to be preached to every human (not just to a select few whom God has already predestined, Matthew 28:18-20; Mark 16:15-16).
- The gospel invitation is offered to all (not just to God's elect, Revelation 22:17).
- A child of God can choose to fall from God's grace and be lost for eternity (John 6:67-71; 17:12; Acts 1:25; Galatians 5:4; 2 Peter 2:20-22)
- God predetermined His plan of salvation and the type of persons (chosen qualities) He would save - not random individuals (Acts 4:27-28; 1 Corinthians 2:7-8; Ephesians 1:11-13). If your church (Presbyterian, etc.) teaches Calvinistic predestination, then leave your church on the basis of false teaching just as Calvin left his church (Catholic) and become part of the one church Jesus built (Matthew 16:18; Acts 2:47; Romans 16:16).
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Was Jacob or Heli The Father of Joseph?
Matthew 1:16: "And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called Christ."
Luke 3:23: "Now Jesus Himself began His ministry at about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, the son of Heli"
(Matthew 1:16; Luke 3:23)
Matthew 1:16: "And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called Christ."
Luke 3:23: "Now Jesus Himself began His ministry at about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, the son of Heli"
In order to solve this alleged discrepancy, it must be understood that Matthew's account is giving the genealogy of Joseph while Luke gives the genealogy of Mary. This is borne out by the fact that in Matthew's account the virgin conception account is told from Joseph's perspective in Matthew 1:18-25; while Luke, who most likely gathers much of his information from eyewitnesses (including Mary) told the virgin conception account from Mary's perspective (Luke 1:1-4).
Why then is Joseph mentioned in both lists of genealogies (Matthew 1:16; Luke 3:23)? First, Matthew is giving the genealogy of Joseph and Luke is following the Hebraic, traditional form of genealogies by listing only the male names in which Mary is designated by her husband's name.
Furthermore, the Hebrews used the word "son" in different senses, referring to...
- One generation (example: Solomon was the "son of" David - Matthew 1:6)
- A remote descendant (such as a grandson, great-grandson, etc. - Matthew 1:1; 21:9; 22:42)
- A son-in-law (cf. 1 Samuel 24:16; 26:17) [This makes sense in the context that Joseph was the "son" (son-in-law) of Heli.]
- The Levirate marriage law (Deuteronomy 25:5-10; Matthew 22:24-26)
- A step-son who took on the legal status of his step-father (which is what Jesus was to Joseph - Matthew 13:55; Mark 6:3; Luke 3:23; 4:22; John 6:42)
Another reason why Matthew and Luke's lists vary is because Matthew's purpose is to prove to the Jews that Jesus is the Messiah. The Jews would have recognized from this genealogical list that Jesus had the legal right to inherit the throne of David (Isaiah 9:6,7; Matthew 22:41-45; Luke 1:32), which was an essential component if Jesus was truly the Messiah. Luke's purpose was to show from Mary's genealogy that she came from the blood-line of David which showed that Jesus was a blood-line descendant of David (see 2 Samuel 7:12-14).
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What Are The Major Differences Between Immersion Into The Holy Spirit And Water Immersion?
There are some great differences between the immersion in the Holy Spirit and water immersion. Here are some of them:
1. The immersion in the Holy Spirit was administered by Jesus Himself only (Mark 1:8). Water immersion is administered by people (Matthew 28:18-20; Acts 8:36-39; 10:47,48) and is designated to place people into fellowship with God.
2. The immersion in the Holy Spirit was a promise (Mark 1:8; Luke 24:44-49; Acts 1:4-5), not a command. People receive promises. People obey commands. Water immersion is a command to be obeyed (Acts 2:38; 10:47,48); whereas the immersion in the Holy Spirit is a promise to be received (Luke 24:44-49; Acts 1:4,5; 2:1-4).
3. The immersion in the Holy Spirit was not for the purpose of saving people from their sins because it was promised to a certain group of men (the apostles) who were already saved from their sins. [NOTE: Please consult our question: "Does Immersion In The Holy Spirit Save People From Their Sins?"]. It was for the purpose of guiding these men into all the truth, allowing them to perform a variety of miracles to confirm the message that they preached - that it was truly from God (Mark 16:20; Hebrews 2:4). Holy Spirit immersion also enabled to apostles to equip new Christians in the first century by the lay on of their hands in giving them miraculous power for confirmation of the true message (Acts 2:38; 8:14-16; 19:1-7). On the other hand, water immersion is for the purpose of saving people from their sins as we come into contact with the cleansing blood of Christ through faith in the working of God (Colossians 2:11,12; Revelation 1:5; Romans 6:3,4; 1 Peter 3:21).
4. Water immersion is an immersion that is for everyone who believes and wants to be saved (Mark 16:15,16) whereas the immersion in the Holy Spirit was for a select few (Acts 1:4,5; 2:1-4; John 14-16). The baptism mentioned in 1 Corinthians 12:13 is something that all Christians have experienced - "by one Spirit we were all baptized into one body."
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Did Jesus Preach To Departed Spirits When He Died?
It is important to study 1 Peter 3:18-20 and 1 Peter 4:6 where this question originated. Some people believe that Jesus took an opportunity to teach God's word as a second chance to those who did not render obedience to God in their earthly life. Did Jesus preach to the spirits of the dead and give them and give them a second chance to repent after their death? A closer examination of these Scriptures will reveal that the answer is "no."
[NOTE: Please consult the question on the Q & A website: "Will God Judge Those Who Never Heard The Gospel?" for further information.] The Bible repeatedly warns that there is no second chance after one dies. If people do not obey the will of the Lord in this earthly life, then there will be no opportunity for them to repent in the next life (Luke 16:16-31; Hebrews 9:27; 2 Corinthians 5:10).
If a person's destiny is sealed at physical death, what does Peter when he states that Jesus "preached to spirits in prison"?
1 Peter 3:18 states that Jesus was "made alive" by the Holy Spirit. 1 Peter 3:19 says "by whom" (since it is in reference to the Holy Spirit) Jesus went and preached to the spirits in prison. That is, by the agency of the Holy Spirit Jesus had preached to spirits through Noah's preaching while the human spirits were alive, but who are now "in prison" (dead) at the writing of Peter.
Note in 1 Peter 3:20 the people to whom Jesus preached (past tense) were disobedient during the days of Noah, that is, the ones who are (present tense) "in prison." In other words, the spirits of these disobedient people were in a spiritual prison at the time Peter wrote his epistle, but it does not say they were in prison at the time they heard the preaching of Noah (via the Holy Spirit - 1 Peter 1:10-12; 2 Peter 1:20,21).
1 Peter 3:18-20 is showing us then that Noah was an inspired preacher - a preacher of righteousness (2 Peter 2:5). The Second Person of the Godhead known as Jesus had sent the Holy Spirit upon Noah in equipping him to preach what God wanted. Noah, by inspiration of the Holy Spirit, preached for 120 years while he was building the ark. He must have been warning those men and women to repent and come into the ark with him - but they were disobedient (2 Peter 3:9). At the time when Peter was writing his epistle, the spirits of those disobedient men were in spiritual prison, also known to us as "torments" (Luke 16:19-31), awaiting the day of judgment.
1 Peter 4:6 is teaching the same lesson. The gospel was "preached" (past tense) to men whom "are dead" (present tense). In other words, at the time Peter was writing his epistle they were dead, but at the time the preaching was done they were alive. By the time of this letter (sometime in the late 60s A.D.), the gospel had been preached for over thirty years.
Instead of teaching a second chance for men to obey the Lord, these passages teach us the destiny of men who have heard the preaching of the truth but refused to obey or remain faithful -- they end up in the prison of torments with no one to blame but themselves.
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Is Gambling A Sin?
There are several reasons why the Bible teaches implicitly that gambling is a sin:
- God wants us to work for what we have (Ephesians 4:28; 1 Thessalonians 4:11-12). The gambler wants to gain without working for them.
- God wants us to be good managers of our possessions (1 Peter 4:10). The gambler is not a good steward of his possessions when he risks lots of money and other things on the very poor chance of earning more.
- God wants us to shun greediness (1 Timothy 6:9-10; Colossians 3:5-7). One gambles out of greed and covetousness (Colossians 3:5).
- God does not want us to take advantage of others (Romans 15:1-2). Gamblers want to take what doesn't belong to them from someone else who is weaker at the game than they. They want to build up their own pocketbooks, not other people.
- God does not want us to be addicted to anything (2 Peter 2:19; 1 Corinthians 6:12). Gambling's highly addictive qualities are well known.
- It violates the golden rule (Matthew 7:12). We wish for others to lose so that we may gain money.
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If A Couple Finds Out That They Are In An Unscriptural Marriage, Can They Be Forgiven?
Yes, but it is based on certain conditions stipulated by God. God is willing to forgive any sin of which one is willing to repent (Luke 17:3; Acts 8:22; 17:30; 1 John 1:9). In these types of sinful relationships, God states that these relationships must cease to exist.
Yes, but it is based on certain conditions stipulated by God. God is willing to forgive any sin of which one is willing to repent (Luke 17:3; Acts 8:22; 17:30; 1 John 1:9). In these types of sinful relationships, God states that these relationships must cease to exist.
By implication we learn from 2 Corinthians 2 that the brother who was unlawfully married to his father's wife (his stepmother) in 1 Corinthians 5:1 repented of his sin of fornication, which means he ceased the sin (namely, being unlawfully married, 1 Corinthians 6:9-11). He had to get out of his sinful relationship (compare: Herod Antipas who married Herodias, the wife of Phillip, was told by John the Immerser to give up unlawful, sinful marriage (Mark 6:17,18). What would Herod Antipas have to do if he wanted to show true, genuine repentance? He must get out of that unlawful relationship).
When a person repents (and if they are not a Christian - is baptized, Acts 2:38), his SINS are washed away - NOT his lasting consequences. One can repent and be forgiven of murder; but that does not bring the murdered one back from the dead. It does not take away the permanent pain of the victim's loved ones, etc. One can unscripturally separate what God has joined together and unscripturally remarry another, thus violating Matthew 19:6, 9. He then can repent (change his heart/mind) and do works corresponding with his repentance (which means giving up the adulterous marriage, Acts 26:20). By doing so, his SINS of separating the God-joined marriage and of contracting an adulterous marriage are forgiven. But his permanent consequences are that he will always be one who was divorced and remarried unscripturally and therefore no longer a scriptural candidate for remarriage (to continue in a marriage with another causes one to be classified as an adulterer/adulteress, Romans 7:3). Only the scriptural marriage bed is undefiled; all other marriages are classified as fornication or adultery (Hebrews 13:4).
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Did Jesus Condemn Homosexuality?
Many people who practice homosexuality make the argument that Jesus did not condemn homosexuality.
There are different methods on how to teach a person. There is the explicit method and there is the implicit method. The word "explicitly" is defined as: "fully and clearly expressed or demonstrated." The word "implicitly" is defined as: "involved, indicated, or suggested without being directly or explicitly stated; tacitly understood."
The people who practice homosexuality are therefore asking the question: "Did Jesus fully and clearly express or demonstrate that homosexuality is sinful during his personal ministry?" In other words, did Jesus use the word "homosexuality" at any time during His personal ministry? The answer would be in the negative.
But there is another question that needs to be asked: "Did Jesus indicate, or suggest (without stating directly or explicitly) that homosexuality is sinful during His personal ministry?" The Bible affirms "yes" to this question.
1. Jesus used the word "fornication", which is a word that covers all types of illicit sexual activity, including homosexuality.
Thayer's Greek lexicon defines fornication (porneia) as: "1. to prostitute one's body to the lust of another. In the Scriptures.
2. to give oneself to unlawful sexual intercourse; to commit fornication (Vulgate fornicor): 1 Corinthians 6:18; 10:8; Revelation 2:14,20; (Mark 10:19 WH (rejected) marginal reading).
3. by a Hebraism (see porneia, b.)..." ("porneu/w," Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, n.p.).
In Matthew 15:17-20, Jesus stated: "Do you not yet understand that whatever enters the mouth goes into the stomach and is eliminated? But those things which proceed out of the mouth come from the heart, and they defile a man. For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications (porneia), thefts, false witness, blasphemies. These are the things which defile a man, but to eat with unwashed hands does not defile a man."
Jude 1:7 states that "as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities around them in a similar manner to these, having given themselves over to sexual immorality [porneia] (fornication - KJV) and gone after strange flesh, are set forth as an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire."
Major Premise: Jesus stated that "fornications" (porneia) defile a person (Matthew 15:17-20).
Minor Premise: Homosexuality is a type of fornication (Jude 7).
Conclusion: Therefore, homosexuality is a type of fornication that defiles a person.
2. Jesus mentions the cities of Sodom and Gommorah in His personal ministry and states that they would be judged for their wicked behavior (Matthew 10:15; 11:23).
For what sin(s) were Sodom and Gommorah judged? In Genesis 19:4,5, the Bible states: "Now before they lay down, the men of the city, the men of Sodom, both old and young, all the people from every quarter, surrounded the house. And they called to Lot and said to him, "Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may know them (an idiom for sexual intercourse) carnally."
Ezekiel 16:48-50 is found in the context of an indictment against Judah for being so evil and is giving a historical lesson to her by mentioning the other past cities that had been destroyed: " ‘As I live,' says the Lord God, ‘neither your sister Sodom nor her daughters have done as you and your daughters have done. Look, this was the iniquity of your sister Sodom: She and her daughter had pride, fullness of food, and abundance of idleness; neither did she strengthen the hand of the poor and needy. And they were haughty and committed abomination (see Leviticus 20:13) before Me; therefore I took them away as I saw fit.'"
Major Premise: Jesus judged the cities of Sodom and Gommorah for their wicked behavior (Matthew 10:23; 11:20-24).
Minor Premise: Sodom and Gommorah committed the act of homosexuality as well as other sins (Genesis 19:4,5; Ezekiel 16:48-50)
Conclusion: Therefore, Jesus judged the cities of Sodom and Gommorah for the act of homosexuality as well as other sins.
3. Jesus sent the Holy Spirit upon the apostles to guide them into all truth (John 16:12,13; 1 Corinthians 14:37; 1 Corinthians 6:9-11; Romans 1:24-27; 1 Timothy 1:8-11).
Paul states that the things he writes "are the commandments of the Lord" (1 Corinthians 14:37). Paul, as he is guided by the Holy Spirit into all New Testament truth (John 16:13), states that homosexual/lesbian behavior involves vile passions, is against nature, is lustful, is shameful and receives a penalty (Romans 1:18-32) which may include disease, "pre-mature" aging and death; but most assuredly spiritual death which results in not obtaining/forfeiting the eternal inheritance (1 Corinthians 6:9-11).
Major Premise: Jesus revealed all truth through His inspired apostles and prophets (John 16:12,13; 1 Corinthians 14:37; Galatians 1:1,2).
Minor Premise: Paul, an apostle, revealed that homosexuality was a sinful behavior (1 Corinthians 6:9-11; Romans 1:24-27; 1 Timothy 1:8-11).
Conclusion: Therefore, Jesus revealed through Paul that homosexuality was a sinful behavior.
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